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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 02:35

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

What shocking family behavior did you read about in India?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Is it better for 2nd generation Western Muslims to marry someone from their parents' country or a western Muslim who was born and raised in the West?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.